I want to update a table with consecutive numbering starting with 1. The update has a where clause so only results that meet the clause will be renumbered. Can I accomplish this efficiently without using a temp table?
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Most likely this depends on the specific version of SQL you are running on, I don't think there is a standard way to do this. – Ogre Codes Jul 22 '09 at 20:06
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What would the number be used for? Are you creating an ID? Also, I wouldn't worry about inefficiency. Given no other information, it doesn't sound like you'd be missing out on something by being grossly inefficient. Sounds like a one off operation. – Mark Canlas Jul 22 '09 at 20:10
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I get 1.5 million listings in a 2 gb pipe delimited files each week. I need to run a stored procedure that figures out which listings are in my clients cities, give them the client id, and number them sequentially for each client. It must be efficient. – Bryan Jul 22 '09 at 20:14
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Now that I understand why you are numbering, The solution I proposed won't do what you need. If multiple updates are running at the same time, you won't get consecutive numbers within that update. +1 to zombat and I have removed my answer. – RC. Jul 22 '09 at 20:21
12 Answers
This probably depends on your database, but here is a solution for MySQL 5 that involves using a variable:
SET @a:=0;
UPDATE table SET field=@a:=@a+1 WHERE whatever='whatever' ORDER BY field2,field3
You should probably edit your question and indicate which database you're using however.
Edit: I found a solution utilizing T-SQL for SQL Server. It's very similar to the MySQL method:
DECLARE @myVar int
SET @myVar = 0
UPDATE
myTable
SET
@myvar = myField = @myVar + 1

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2Thanks for the help. So that will increment myVar for every record the update finds.. great! What if my numbering field is of type varchar instead of int. Can I convert myVar to varchar as well? Thanks again to all! – Bryan Jul 22 '09 at 20:44
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1I would think that you could use varchars without problems... you can definitely have string variables. Depending on how SQL Server handles math using strings instead of integers, you might be faced with a couple of conversions throughout your SET statement, but I'm betting it wouldn't be too difficult. – zombat Jul 22 '09 at 20:50
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1Note, using assignment operations in SQL Server queries with ORDER BY clauses has undefined behaviour. https://connect.microsoft.com/SQLServer/Feedback/Details/383641 or https://marc.durdin.net/2015/07/concatenating-strings-in-sql-server-or-undefined-behaviour-by-design/ (this talks about strings but same issue may arise) – Marc Durdin Oct 05 '15 at 04:03
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To anyone else who read the SQL Server code and was sceptical - it really does update all rows matching the where clause – cja Mar 01 '16 at 13:26
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1For MS Sql you should add a query hint: OPTION (MAXDOP 1) as suggested at https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1167885/update-sql-with-consecutive-numbering#comment55888771_16710393 – Michael Freidgeim Oct 28 '18 at 22:15
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The [solution](http://www.sqlmag.com/Article/ArticleID/93349/sql_server_93349.html) link doesn't work anymore. Find it in the [web archive](http://web.archive.org/web/20100505063256/http://www.sqlmag.com/article/tsql3/weighted-selection-in-t-sql.aspx) – stomy Jun 15 '20 at 17:38
For Microsoft SQL Server 2005/2008. ROW_NUMBER() function was added in 2005.
; with T as (select ROW_NUMBER() over (order by ColumnToOrderBy) as RN
, ColumnToHoldConsecutiveNumber from TableToUpdate
where ...)
update T
set ColumnToHoldConsecutiveNumber = RN
EDIT: For SQL Server 2000:
declare @RN int
set @RN = 0
Update T
set ColumnToHoldConsecutiveNubmer = @RN
, @RN = @RN + 1
where ...
NOTE: When I tested the increment of @RN appeared to happen prior to setting the the column to @RN, so the above gives numbers starting at 1.
EDIT: I just noticed that is appears you want to create multiple sequential numbers within the table. Depending on the requirements, you may be able to do this in a single pass with SQL Server 2005/2008, by adding partition by
to the over
clause:
; with T as (select ROW_NUMBER()
over (partition by Client, City order by ColumnToOrderBy) as RN
, ColumnToHoldConsecutiveNumber from TableToUpdate)
update T
set ColumnToHoldConsecutiveNumber = RN

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2Shannon your final edit has worked for me several times when I need the incremental numbers to restart for each new group and subgroup. Thank you. Your answer should be ranked higher. – FumblesWithCode Apr 24 '14 at 23:35
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If you want to create a new PrimaryKey column, use just this:
ALTER TABLE accounts ADD id INT IDENTITY(1,1)

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As well as using a CTE or a WITH, it is also possible to use an update with a self-join to the same table:
UPDATE a
SET a.columnToBeSet = b.sequence
FROM tableXxx a
INNER JOIN
(
SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER ( ORDER BY columnX ) AS sequence, columnY, columnZ
FROM tableXxx
WHERE columnY = @groupId AND columnY = @lang2
) b ON b.columnY = a.columnY AND b.columnZ = a.columnZ
The derived table, alias b, is used to generated the sequence via the ROW_NUMBER() function together with some other columns which form a virtual primary key. Typically, each row will require a unique sequence value.
The WHERE clause is optional and limits the update to those rows that satisfy the specified conditions.
The derived table is then joined to the same table, alias a, joining on the virtual primary key columns with the column to be updated set to the generated sequence.

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In oracle this works:
update myTable set rowColum = rownum
where something = something else
http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/pseudocolumns009.htm#i1006297

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To get the example by Shannon fully working I had to edit his answer:
; WITH CTE AS (
SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [NameOfField]) as RowNumber, t1.ID
FROM [ActualTableName] t1
)
UPDATE [ActualTableName]
SET Name = 'Depersonalised Name ' + CONVERT(varchar(255), RowNumber)
FROM CTE
WHERE CTE.Id = [ActualTableName].ID
as his answer was trying to update T, which in his case was the name of the Common Table Expression, and it throws an error.

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UPDATE TableName
SET TableName.id = TableName.New_Id
FROM (
SELECT id, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY id) AS New_Id
FROM TableName
) TableName

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I've used this technique for years to populate ordinals and sequentially numbered columns. However I recently discovered an issue with it when running on SQL Server 2012. It would appear that internally the query engine is applying the update using multiple threads and the predicate portion of the UPDATE is not being handled in a thread-safe manner. To make it work again I had to reconfigure SQL Server's max degree of parallelism down to 1 core.
EXEC sp_configure 'show advanced options', 1;
GO
RECONFIGURE WITH OVERRIDE;
GO
EXEC sp_configure 'max degree of parallelism', 1;
GO
RECONFIGURE WITH OVERRIDE;
GO
DECLARE @id int
SET @id = -1
UPDATE dbo.mytable
SET @id = Ordinal = @id + 1
Without this you'll find that most sequential numbers are duplicated throughout the table.

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Note, using assignment operations in SQL Server queries with ORDER BY clauses has undefined behaviour. https://connect.microsoft.com/SQLServer/Feedback/Details/383641 or https://marc.durdin.net/2015/07/concatenating-strings-in-sql-server-or-undefined-behaviour-by-design/ (this talks about strings but same issue may arise) – Marc Durdin Oct 05 '15 at 04:04
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2Instead of changing server settings, you can use a query hint: OPTION (MAXDOP 1) – Matt Lassam-Jones Dec 03 '15 at 14:00
One more way to achieve the desired result
1. Create a sequence object - (https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-sequence-transact-sql?view=sql-server-ver16)
CREATE SEQUENCE dbo.mySeq
AS BIGINT
START WITH 1 -- up to you from what number you want to start cycling
INCREMENT BY 1 -- up to you how it will increment
MINVALUE 1
CYCLE
CACHE 100;
2. Update your records
UPDATE TableName
SET Col2 = NEXT VALUE FOR dbo.mySeq
WHERE ....some condition...
EDIT: To reset sequence to start from the 1 for the next time you use it
ALTER SEQUENCE dbo.mySeq RESTART WITH 1 -- or start with any value you need`

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Doesn't start at 1 in the next run unless the sequence is reset. Makes it rather contrived compared to other solutions given here. – Gert Arnold Jul 11 '22 at 20:57
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Well, I understand (also seeing the other answers, esp. the accepted one) they *always* want to start at 1. – Gert Arnold Jul 13 '22 at 06:35
Join to a Numbers table? It involves an extra table, but it wouldn't be temporary -- you'd keep the numbers table around as a utility.
or
http://www.sqlservercentral.com/articles/Advanced+Querying/2547/
(the latter requires a free registration, but I find it to be a very good source of tips & techniques for MS SQL Server, and a lot is applicable to any SQL implementation).
Hope this single statement solution will help. Assuming you have a column id in the table. You need to replace table, your-integer-column and your-where-clause-column placeholders.
UPDATE {{table-abc}} a
SET {{your-integer-column}} = (
SELECT COUNT(id)+1
FROM {{table-abc}}
WHERE {{your-where-clause-column}} = {{a.your-where-clause-column}}
AND id > a.id
);

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It is possible, but only via some very complicated queries - basically you need a subquery that counts the number of records selected so far, and uses that as the sequence ID. I wrote something similar at one point - it worked, but it was a lot of pain.
To be honest, you'd be better off with a temporary table with an autoincrement field.

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