What effect does this syntax difference have (if any)?

Question

Possible Duplicate:
Is there a difference between (function() {…}()); and (function() {…})();?

I have seen two slightly different ways of using the Self Executing Anonymous Function pattern.

1:

(function(){
    //do stuff
}())

2:

(function(){
    //do stuff
})();

Does the syntax difference have any implied effects that might not be obvious or are these two techniques exactly the same ?

...my search term was *"javascript difference between function parentheses"* It was the fourth result, among many other commonly asked questions about such inline function invocations. — , Aug 03 '12 at 17:07

score 2 · Accepted Answer · answered Aug 03 '12 at 17:05

2

They are the same. People tend to rather use the first. I also think JSLint suggests the first version. I prefer the second. It's really up to you.

answered Aug 03 '12 at 17:05

Christoph

I do prefer the second too. I feel it more natural. – Claudi Aug 03 '12 at 17:09
1

Absolutely. Curly braces directly followed by parenthesis are disgusting and scare me...:) – Christoph Aug 03 '12 at 17:11

score 1 · Answer 2 · answered Aug 03 '12 at 17:20

1

that's absolute same

it called self-executed function

there are three pattern(but third pattern cannot return value)

one and two is your questions

one:

(function(){
    //do stuff
}())

two:

(function(){
    //do stuff
})();

and third is with '!' character

!function(){ 
    //do stuff
}();

good luck!

answered Aug 03 '12 at 17:20

blueiur

1

There are far more than three patterns. Nearly any operator can be used. – Aug 03 '12 at 17:26
thx.. '-', '+' ...operator work too. – blueiur Aug 03 '12 at 17:27

2 Answers2