Is this assumption correct that if a machine has .Net framework 3.5 client profile it will also have .net framework 2.0 ? Given that 3.5 is incrementally built on 2.0 ?
Asked
Active
Viewed 83 times
1 Answers
1
Well, generally speaking: no, not completely.
For example, ASP.NET, while included in .NET framework 2.0/1.x, is not part of the client profile.
Also of interest, perhaps: Differences between Microsoft .NET 4.0 full Framework and Client Profile

Community
- 1
- 1
-
OK but if it was about 3.5 (non-client) and I target my application for .Net 2.0 will the users who have windows 7 (.Net framework 3.5) will they be forced to install 2.0 or should I assume the 3.5 machine also has 2.0 ? – Ahmed Oct 21 '13 at 00:10
-
If the machine has the full 3.5 framework, then yes, the machine also has the 2.0 framework (it is included in the 3.5 framework package). However, you would not have the 1.x framework(s) -- but nobody wants that anyway ;) So, Windows 7 users would not be required to get+install .NET 2.0 separately. – Oct 21 '13 at 00:15