2

I have an interface

public interface ITask
{
    IPart Part { get; set; }
}

When I implement this interface the compiler will be happy with 

public virtual IPart Part { get; set; }

or

public IPart Part { get; set; }

However EF needs the property to be virtual as explained here.

I keep forgetting to implement it the right way. Is there some way I can ensure that it must be?

Note I complete the interface as follows;

public virtual IPart Part
{
    get { return TemplatePart; }
    set { TemplatePart = (TemplatePart)value; }
}

Is the "virtual" actually irrelevant because I am not declaring a navigation property ?

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Kirsten
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    Only thing i can suggest is that if you use VS 2015 you can write your own [roslyn code analyzer](https://github.com/dotnet/roslyn/wiki/How-To-Write-a-C%23-Analyzer-and-Code-Fix) which will perform this checks based on some criterion(for example mark all such interfaces with specific attribute). – Guru Stron Mar 26 '16 at 00:39
  • @alexei-levenkov I changed the question title to the 2nd part of my question, to avoid being a duplicate. Is this OK? – Kirsten Mar 26 '16 at 02:28
  • I think the answer might be that it only needs to be virtual if something needs to override it. This wont be the case for a property which is just returning a cast of another property. – Kirsten Mar 26 '16 at 05:32
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    Casting to one implementation defeats the purpose of interfaces. Also, I wonder how you're going to use this with EF, that doesn't support interfaces. Further, EF doesn't *need* the property to be virtual. It's you who may need it, if you want lazy loading. I don't see any reason to enforce lazy loading as standard behavior. – Gert Arnold Mar 26 '16 at 20:08
  • @GertArnold I am setting up my business classes in Dev Express XAF. They act as EF Business classes for Code First and also XAF generates the UI from them. Hence the presence of interfaces. (Apologies for not tagging that earlier) – Kirsten Mar 27 '16 at 02:17

0 Answers0