According to Harper (https://existentialtype.wordpress.com/2011/04/16/modules-matter-most/), it seems that Type Classes simply do not offer the same level of abstraction that Modules offer and I'm having a hard time exactly figuring out why. And there are no examples in that link, so it's hard for me to see the key differences. There are also other papers on how to translate between Modules and Type Classes (http://www.cse.unsw.edu.au/~chak/papers/modules-classes.pdf), but this doesn't really have anything to do with the implementation in the programmer's perspective (it just says that there isn't something one can do that the other can't emulate).
Specifically, in the first link:
The first is that they insist that a type can implement a type class in exactly one way. For example, according to the philosophy of type classes, the integers can be ordered in precisely one way (the usual ordering), but obviously there are many orderings (say, by divisibility) of interest. The second is that they confound two separate issues: specifying how a type implements a type class and specifying when such a specification should be used during type inference.
I don't understand either. A type can implement a type class in more than 1 way in ML? How would you have the integers ordered by divisibility by example without creating a new type? In Haskell, you would have to do something like use data and have the instance Ord
to offer an alternative ordering.
And the second one, aren't the two are distinct in Haskell? Specifying "when such a specification should be used during type inference" can be done by something like this:
blah :: BlahType b => ...
where BlahType is the class being used during the type inference and NOT the implementing class. Whereas, "how a type implements a type class" is done using instance
.
Can some one explain what the link is really trying to say? I'm just not quite understanding why Modules would be less restrictive than Type Classes.