You want the inverse of `xor`, (so `xand`?), which is `bool(cond1) == bool(cond2)`. See the duplicate (with `!=` inverted to `==`). You can drop the `bool()` calls if both `cond1` and `cond2` are themselves boolean results.
– Martijn PietersMar 09 '17 at 03:58
@MartijnPieters: OK. The logic is correct; the question still asks about equality of both variables (both true or both false). Fill in the correct syntax for the language, whether that's `=`, `==`, `equals`, or something else. :-)
– Ken WhiteMar 09 '17 at 04:00
@SamuelLiew: yes, which is nothing more than the inversion of XOR. So `bool(a) != bool(b)` (XOR) becomes `bool(a) == bool(b)`. I do cover that in my comment.
– Martijn PietersMar 09 '17 at 04:09
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If cond1 and cond2 are booleans, there certainly is: