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I have looked at the solution below, and it looks strange to me:

https://stackoverflow.com/a/13074955/499206

Is it really necessary to explicitly remove the fragment using a fragment transaction if I pop it from the backstack using PopBackStackImmediate()?

Shouldn't the framework handle it for me?

At least I don't see the fragment in the fragment manager anymore after PopBackStackImmediate().

wh1t3cat1k
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