In C++, suppose I have a function dummy(foo& f) that does some computation on the public members of f. Now there is a class bar that publicly inherits from foo, and b is an object of bar. Can I call dummy on b? Or I need to redefine dummy(bar& b)? What is the best practice here? Note that the scenario is a bit different from the scenario where virtual function and runtime polymorphism can be applied.
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Zitao Wang
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Did you try it? Did it work or not? – eerorika Jan 24 '20 at 05:28
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@eerorika I tried it and it worked, but I still want to understand why. – Zitao Wang Jan 24 '20 at 05:36
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@Dai, this is exactly what I'm looking for. Thanks for the reference! – Zitao Wang Jan 24 '20 at 05:36
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Can you give a small example of what you tried? – Jan 24 '20 at 05:37
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@Chipster my question is answered in https://stackoverflow.com/questions/9285627/is-it-possible-to-pass-derived-classes-by-reference-to-a-function-taking-base-cl. You can refer there for concrete examples. – Zitao Wang Jan 24 '20 at 05:38