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I have a project where the client (a Java stateful bean) will make a REST call to another bean (let's call it RequestBean) to perform a function and return a Response. Part of that function requires a call to a vendor's SOAP service. That service is a little slow to initialize in Java, but once initialized, then of course the calls are much faster.

I've been advised that I can move that service initialization to a separate ApplicationScoped bean (let's call it ServiceBean) so that it can initialize once and that's it. My question is about RequestBean. Should that be stateless, and how would it access the service that was initialized in ServiceBean?

Tom T
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  • Or is it better to have ServiceBean call a stateless RequestBean, and pass it a reference to the SOAP service, so that RequestBean doesn't need to inject anything at all? – Tom T Oct 30 '20 at 20:08

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I think I've figured this out. I added @Startup @Singleton to the service bean, as well as a method to pass the service reference to the request bean. This works. I'm not sure if this is really the proper way to do this, but for my immediate testing, it's sufficient.

Tom T
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