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I guess O(log(n!)) is asymptotically slower than O(n). Am I right ?

Charan Shetty
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1 Answers1

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Unfortunately, your guess is completely wrong! try to expand log(n!) as the following:

log(n!) = log(n * (n-1) * ... * 1) > log(n * (n-1) * ... * n/2) > 
log((n/2)^n) = n log(n/2) \in Theta(n log(n))`

Therefore, n \in O(log(n!))

OmG
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