In other words, is o(f(n)) = O(f(n)) - Θ(f(n))
?
f ∈ O(g) [big O] says, essentially
For at least one choice of a constant k > 0, you can find a constant y such that the inequality 0 <= f(x) <= k g(x) holds for all x > y.
f ∈ Θ(g) [theta] says, essentially
For at least one choice of constants k1, k2 > 0, you can find a constant y such that the inequality 0 <= k1 g(x) <= f(x) <= k2 g(x) holds for all x > y.
f ∈ o(g) [little o] says, essentially
For every choice of a constant k > 0, you can find a constant a such that the inequality 0 <= f(x) < k g(x) holds for all x > y.
By the definition, it is easy to realize that o(g) ⊆ O(g), and Θ(g) ⊆ O(g). And it makes sense to one complement each other. I couldn't find any counter example of function that is in O(f(n)) and not in Θ(f(n)) that is not in o(f(n)).