I'm fairly certain that if f(n) = Θ(g(n)) is true, if f(n) is asymptotically equal to g(n). However, I'm concerned I might be overlooking something. Am I correct in thinking that f(n) = Θ(g(n)) then f(n) is asymptotically equal to g(n)? or am I overlooking something?
I'm trying to compare different algorithms with respective runtimes of f(n) and g(n) and prove that f(n) = Θ(g(n)), but I'm not sure if I'm on the right way or not.
A. f(n) = log(n^100), g(n) = log(n^2)
lim n->∞ f(n)/g(n) = lim n->∞ log(n^200)/log(n^2) = 100
Since the result is a constant, we conclude that f(n) ∈ ϴ(g(n)), hence f(n) = ϴ(g(n)).
B. f(n) = sqrt(n), g(n) = log(n)
lim n->∞ f(n)/g(n) = lim n->∞ sqrt(n)/log(n) = ±∞, in my case ∞, hence f(n) ≠ ϴ(g(n)).
C. f(n) = 3^n, g(n) = 5^n
lim n->∞ f(n)/g(n) = lim n->∞ 3^n/5^n = 0, hence f(n) ≠ ϴ(g(n)).
D. f(n) = sin(n)+3, g(n) = cos(n)+1
lim n->∞ f(n)/g(n) = lim n->∞ sin(n)+3/cos(n)+1 = 4/3, hence f(n) ≠ ϴ(g(n)).
Please tell me, am I on the right way?